A. The following words and terms when used in this chapter shall have the meanings ascribed to them in § 54.1-2900 of the Code of Virginia:
Practice of chiropractic
Practice of medicine or osteopathic medicine
Practice of podiatry
B. The following words and terms when used in this chapter shall have the following meanings unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:
"Approved institution" means any accredited school or college of medicine, osteopathic medicine, podiatry, or chiropractic located in the United States, its territories, or Canada.
"Conversion therapy" means any practice or treatment as defined in § 54.1-2409.5 A of the Code of Virginia.
"Principal site" means the location in a foreign country where teaching and clinical facilities are located.
A separate board regulation, 18VAC85-11, entitled Public Participation Guidelines, provides for involvement of the public in the development of all regulations of the Virginia Board of Medicine.
A. Practitioners shall comply with the provisions of § 32.1-127.1:03 of the Code of Virginia related to the confidentiality and disclosure of patient records.
B. Practitioners shall provide patient records to another practitioner or to the patient or the patient's personal representative in a timely manner in accordance with provisions of § 32.1-127.1:03 of the Code of Virginia.
C. Practitioners shall properly manage patient records and shall maintain timely, accurate, legible, and complete patient records.
D. Practitioners shall maintain a patient record for a minimum of six years following the last patient encounter with the following exceptions:
1. Records of a minor child, including immunizations, shall be maintained until the child reaches the age of 18 or becomes emancipated, with a minimum time for record retention of six years from the last patient encounter regardless of the age of the child;
2. Records that have previously been transferred to another practitioner or health care provider or provided to the patient or the patient's personal representative; or
3. Records that are required by contractual obligation or federal law to be maintained for a longer period of time.
E. Practitioners shall post information or in some manner inform all patients concerning the timeframe for record retention and destruction. Patient records shall only be destroyed in a manner that protects patient confidentiality, such as by incineration or shredding.
F. When a practitioner is closing, selling, or relocating his practice, he shall meet the requirements of § 54.1-2405 of the Code of Virginia for giving notice that copies of records can be sent to any like-regulated provider of the patient's choice or provided to the patient.
A. Communication with patients.
1. Except as provided in § 32.1-127.1:03 F of the Code of Virginia, a practitioner shall accurately inform a patient or his legally authorized representative of his medical diagnoses, prognosis and prescribed treatment or plan of care in understandable terms. A practitioner shall not deliberately make a false or misleading statement regarding the practitioner's skill or the efficacy or value of a medication, treatment, or procedure prescribed or directed by the practitioner in the treatment of any disease or condition.
A practitioner shall present information relating to the patient's care to a patient or his legally authorized representative in understandable terms and encourage participation in the decisions regarding the patient's care. 3. Before surgery or any invasive procedure is performed, informed consent shall be obtained from the patient in accordance with the policies of the health care entity. Practitioners shall inform patients of the risks, benefits, and alternatives of the recommended surgery or invasive procedure that a reasonably prudent practitioner in similar practice in Virginia would tell a patient.
a. In the instance of a minor or a patient who is incapable of making an informed decision on his own behalf or is incapable of communicating such a decision due to a physical or mental disorder, the legally authorized person available to give consent shall be informed and the consent documented.
b. An exception to the requirement for consent prior to performance of surgery or an invasive procedure may be made in an emergency situation when a delay in obtaining consent would likely result in imminent harm to the patient.
c. For the purposes of this provision, "invasive procedure" means any diagnostic or therapeutic procedure performed on a patient that is not part of routine, general care and for which the usual practice within the health care entity is to document specific informed consent from the patient or surrogate decision maker prior to proceeding.
4.3. Practitioners shall adhere to requirements of § 32.1-162.18 of the Code of Virginia for obtaining informed consent from patients prior to involving them as subjects in human research with the exception of retrospective chart reviews.
B. Termination of the practitioner/patient relationship.
1. The practitioner or the patient may terminate the relationship. In either case, the practitioner shall make a copy of the patient record available, except in situations where denial of access is allowed by law.
2. Except as provided in § 54.1-2962.2 of the Code of Virginia, a practitioner shall not terminate the relationship or make his services unavailable without documented notice to the patient that allows for a reasonable time to obtain the services of another practitioner.
A. A practitioner shall not:
1. Knowingly allow subordinates to jeopardize patient safety or provide patient care outside of the subordinate's scope of practice or area of responsibility. Practitioners shall delegate patient care only to subordinates who are properly trained and supervised;
2. Engage in an egregious pattern of disruptive behavior or an interaction in a health care setting that interferes with patient care or could reasonably be expected to adversely impact the quality of care rendered to a patient; or
3. Exploit the practitioner and patient relationship for personal gain.
; or 4. Engage in conversion therapy with a person younger than 18 years of age.
B. Advocating for patient safety or improvement in patient care within a health care entity shall not constitute disruptive behavior provided the practitioner does not engage in behavior prohibited in subdivision A 2 of this section.
A. Any statement specifying a fee, whether standard, discounted or free, for professional services which does not include the cost of all related procedures, services and products which, to a substantial likelihood, will be necessary for the completion of the advertised service as it would be understood by an ordinarily prudent person shall be deemed to be deceptive or misleading, or both. Where reasonable disclosure of all relevant variables and considerations is made, a statement of a range of prices for specifically described services shall not be deemed to be deceptive or misleading. B. Advertising a discounted or free service, examination, or treatment and charging for any additional service, examination, or treatment that is performed as a result of and within 72 hours of the initial office visit in response to such advertisement is unprofessional conduct unless such professional services rendered are as a result of a bonafide emergency. This provision may not be waived by agreement of the patient and the practitioner. C. Advertisements of discounts shall disclose the full fee that has been discounted. The practitioner shall maintain documented evidence to substantiate the discounted fees and shall make such information available to a consumer upon request. D. A licensee shall disclose the complete name of the specialty board that conferred the certification when using or authorizing the use of the term "board certified" or any similar words or phrase calculated to convey the same meaning in any advertising for his practice. E. A licensee of the board shall not advertise information that is false, misleading, or deceptive. For an advertisement for a single practitioner, it shall be presumed that the practitioner is responsible and accountable for the validity and truthfulness of its content. For an advertisement for a practice in which there is more than one practitioner, the name of the practitioner or practitioners responsible and accountable for the content of the advertisement shall be documented and maintained by the practice for at least two years. Documentation, scientific and otherwise, supporting claims made in an advertisement shall be maintained and available for the board's review for at least two years. F. Documentation, scientific and otherwise, supporting claims made in an advertisement shall be maintained and available for the board's review for at least two years. A. The recommendation or direction for the use of vitamins, minerals or food supplements and the rationale for that recommendation shall be documented by the practitioner. The recommendation or direction shall be based upon a reasonable expectation that such use will result in a favorable patient outcome, including preventive practices, and that a greater benefit will be achieved than that which can be expected without such use. B. Vitamins, minerals, or food supplements, or a combination of the three, shall not be sold, dispensed, recommended, prescribed, or suggested in doses that would be contraindicated based on the individual patient's overall medical condition and medications. C. The practitioner shall conform to the standards of his particular branch of the healing arts in the therapeutic application of vitamins, minerals or food supplement therapy. A practitioner shall not sell, prescribe, or administer anabolic steroids to any patient for other than accepted therapeutic purposes. A practitioner shall not knowingly and willfully solicit or receive any remuneration, directly or indirectly, in return for referring an individual to a facility or institution as defined in § 37.2-100 of the Code of Virginia, or hospital as defined in § 32.1-123 of the Code of Virginia. Remuneration shall be defined as compensation, received in cash or in kind, but shall not include any payments, business arrangements, or payment practices allowed by 42 USC § 1320a-7b(b), as amended, or any regulations promulgated thereto. A. A practitioner shall not prescribe amphetamine, Schedule II, for the purpose of weight reduction or control. B. A practitioner shall not prescribe controlled substances, Schedules III through VI, for the purpose of weight reduction or control in the treatment of obesity, unless the following conditions are met: 1. An appropriate history and physical examination are performed and recorded at the time of initiation of pharmacotherapy for obesity by the prescribing physician, and the physician reviews the results of laboratory work, as indicated, including testing for thyroid function; 2. If the drug to be prescribed could adversely affect cardiac function, the physician shall review the results of an electrocardiogram performed and interpreted within 90 days of initial prescribing for treatment of obesity; 3. A diet and exercise program for weight loss is prescribed and recorded; 4. The patient is seen within the first 30 days following initiation of pharmacotherapy for weight loss by the prescribing physician or a licensed practitioner with prescriptive authority working under the supervision of the prescribing physician, at which time a recording shall be made of blood pressure, pulse, and any other tests as may be necessary for monitoring potential adverse effects of drug therapy; 5. The treating physician shall direct the follow-up care, including the intervals for patient visits and the continuation of or any subsequent changes in pharmacotherapy. Continuation of prescribing for treatment of obesity shall occur only if the patient has continued progress toward achieving or maintaining a target weight and has no significant adverse effects from the prescribed program. C. If specifically authorized in his practice agreement with a supervising or patient care team physician, a physician assistant or nurse practitioner may perform the physical examination, review tests, and prescribe Schedules III through VI controlled substances for treatment of obesity, as specified in subsection B of this section.
Every applicant for licensure shall:
1. Meet the educational requirements specified in 18VAC85-20-121 or 18VAC85-20-122 and the examination requirements as specified for each profession in 18VAC85-20-140;
2. File the complete application and appropriate fee as specified in 18VAC85-20-22 with the executive director of the board; and
3. File the required credentials with the executive director as specified below:
a. Graduates of an approved institution shall file:
(1) Documentary evidence that he received a degree from the institution; and
complete chronological record of all professional activities since graduation from professional school , giving location, dates, and types of services performed or the last ten years, whichever is less.
b. Graduates of an institution not approved by an accrediting agency recognized by the board shall file:
(1) Documentary evidence of education as required by 18VAC85-20-122;
(2) A translation made and endorsed by a consul or by a professional translating service of all such documents not in the English language; and
complete chronological record of all professional activities since graduation from professional school , giving location, dates, and types of services performed or the last ten years, whichever is less.
A. The Executive Director of the Board of Medicine or his designee shall review each application for licensure and in no case shall an applicant be licensed unless there is evidence that the applicant has passed an examination equivalent to the
Virginia Board of Medicine examination required by the board at the time he was examined and meets all requirements of Part III (18VAC85-20-120 et seq.) of this chapter. If the executive director or his designee is not fully satisfied that the applicant meets all applicable requirements of Part III of this chapter and this part, the executive director or his designee shall refer the application to the Credentials Committee for a determination on licensure.
B. A doctor of medicine or osteopathic medicine who has passed the examination of the National Board of Medical Examiners or of the National Board of Osteopathic Medical Examiners, Federation Licensing Examination, or the United States Medical Licensing Examination, or the examination of the Licensing Medical Council of Canada or other such examinations as prescribed in § 54.1-2913.1 of the Code of Virginia may be accepted for licensure.
C. A doctor of podiatry who has passed the National Board of Podiatric Medical Examiners examination and has passed a clinical competence examination acceptable to the board may be accepted for licensure.
D. A doctor of chiropractic who has met the requirements of one of the following may be accepted for licensure:
1. An applicant who graduated after January 31, 1996, shall document successful completion of Parts I, II, III, and IV of the National Board of Chiropractic Examiners examination (NBCE).
2. An applicant who graduated from January 31, 1991, to January 31, 1996, shall document successful completion of Parts I, II, and III of the National Board of Chiropractic Examiners examination (NBCE).
3. An applicant who graduated from July 1, 1965, to January 31, 1991, shall document successful completion of Parts I, II, and III of the NBCE, or Parts I and II of the NBCE and the Special Purpose Examination for Chiropractic (SPEC), and document evidence of licensure in another state for at least two years immediately preceding his application.
4. An applicant who graduated prior to July 1, 1965, shall document successful completion of the SPEC, and document evidence of licensure in another state for at least two years immediately preceding his application.
E. Applicants who sat for the United States Medical Licensing Examination (USMLE) or the Comprehensive Osteopathic Medical Licensure Examination (COMLEX-USA) shall provide evidence of passing all steps within a 10-year period unless the applicant is board certified in a specialty approved by the American Board of Medical Specialties or the Bureau of Osteopathic Specialists of the American Osteopathic Association.
F. Applicants for licensure in podiatry shall provide evidence of having passed the National Board of Podiatric Medical Examiners Examination to be eligible to sit for the Podiatric Medical Licensing Examination (PMLEXIS) in Virginia.
To be licensed by endorsement, an applicant shall:
1. Hold at least one current,
unrestricted active license in a United States jurisdiction or Canada for the five years immediately preceding application to the board;
2. Have been engaged in active practice, defined as
an average of 20 hours per week or 640 hours per year, for five years after postgraduate training and two out of the last five years immediately preceding application, where such practice is not required to be consecutive;
3. Verify that the most recent license held in another United States jurisdiction or in Canada is in good standing, defined as current and unrestricted, or if lapsed, eligible for renewal or reinstatement;
4. Hold current certification by one of the following:
a. American Board of Medical Specialties;
b. Bureau of Osteopathic Specialists;
c. American Board of Foot and Ankle Surgery;
d. American Board of Podiatric Medicine;
e. Fellowship of Royal College of Physicians of Canada;
f. Fellowship of the Royal College of Surgeons of Canada; or
g. College of Family Physicians of Canada;
5. Submit a current report from the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services National Practitioner Data Bank; and
6. Have no grounds for denial based on provisions of § 54.1-2915 of the Code of Virginia or regulations of the board, or have any disciplinary restrictions on a current, active license.
A. A physician who graduated from an institution not approved by an accrediting agency recognized by the board applying for a limited professorial license or a limited fellow license to practice medicine in an approved medical school or college in Virginia shall:
1. Submit evidence of authorization to practice medicine in a foreign country.
2. Submit evidence of a standard Educational Commission for Foreign Medical Graduates (ECFMG) certificate or its equivalent. Such required evidence may be waived by the Credentials Committee or its designee based on other evidence of medical competency and English proficiency.
3. Submit a recommendation from the dean of an accredited medical school in Virginia that the applicant is a person of professorial or of fellow rank whose knowledge and special training meet the requirements of § 54.1-2936 of the Code of Virginia.
B. The limited professorial license or limited fellow license applies only to the practice of medicine in hospitals and outpatient clinics where medical students, interns or residents rotate and patient care is provided by the medical school or college recommending the applicant. A limited professorial license or limited fellow license shall be valid for one year. Renewals shall be based upon the recommendation of the dean of the medical school and continued full-time service as a faculty member or employment as a fellow, although a limited fellow license may not be renewed more than twice.
1. The limited professorial license shall be valid for one year and may be renewed annually upon recommendation of the dean of the medical school and upon continued full-time service as a faculty member. 2. The limited fellow license shall be valid for one year and may be renewed not more than twice upon the recommendation of the dean of the medical school and upon continued full-time employment as a fellow.
C. An individual who has practiced with a limited professorial license for five continuous years may have a waiver when applying for a full license to practice medicine in the Commonwealth of Virginia. The limited professorial licensee applying for a full license shall meet the requirements of 18VAC85-20-120 and 18VAC85-20-122.
Any doctor of medicine, osteopathic medicine, podiatry, or chiropractic who does not hold a license to practice in Virginia and who seeks registration to practice under subdivision A 27 of § 54.1-2901 of the Code of Virginia on a voluntary basis under the auspices of a publicly supported, all volunteer, nonprofit organization that sponsors the provision of health care to populations of underserved people shall:
1. File a complete application for registration on a form provided by the board at least five business days prior to engaging in such practice. An incomplete application will not be considered;
2. Provide a complete record of professional licensure in each state in which he has held a license and a copy of any current license;
3. Provide the name of the nonprofit organization, the dates, and the location of the voluntary provision of services; and
Pay a registration fee of $10; and 5. Provide a notarized statement from a representative of the nonprofit organization attesting to its compliance with provisions of subdivision A 27 of § 54.1-2901 of the Code of Virginia.
A. In order to renew an active license biennially, a practitioner shall attest to completion of at least
60 30 hours of continuing learning activities within the two years immediately preceding renewal. as follows: 1. A minimum of 30 of the 60 The hours shall be in Type 1 activities or courses offered by an accredited sponsor or organization sanctioned by the profession. a. 1. Type 1 hours in chiropractic shall be clinical hours that are approved by a college or university accredited by the Council on Chiropractic Education or any other organization approved by the board. b. 2. Type 1 hours in podiatry shall be accredited by the American Podiatric Medical Association, the American Council of Certified Podiatric Physicians and Surgeons or any other organization approved by the board. 2. No more than 30 of the 60 hours may be Type 2 activities or courses, which may or may not be approved by an accredited sponsor or organization but which shall be chosen by the licensee to address such areas as ethics, standards of care, patient safety, new medical technology, and patient communication. a. Up to 15 of the Type 2 continuing education hours may be satisfied through delivery of services, without compensation, to low-income individuals receiving services through a local health department or a free clinic organized in whole or primarily for the delivery of health services. One hour of continuing education may be credited for one hour of providing such volunteer services. For the purpose of continuing education credit for voluntary service, documentation by the health department or free clinic shall be acceptable. b. Type 2 hours may include teaching in a health care profession field.
B. A practitioner shall be exempt from the continuing competency requirements for the first biennial renewal following the date of initial licensure in Virginia.
C. The practitioner shall retain in his records all supporting documentation for a period of six years following the renewal of an active license.
D. The board shall periodically conduct a random audit of its active licensees to determine compliance. The practitioners selected for the audit shall provide all supporting documentation within 30 days of receiving notification of the audit. E. D. Failure to comply with these requirements may subject the licensee to disciplinary action by the board. F. E. The board may grant an extension of the deadline for continuing competency requirements for up to one year for good cause shown upon a written request from the licensee prior to the renewal date. G. F. The board may grant an exemption for all or part of the requirements for circumstances beyond the control of the licensee, such as temporary disability, mandatory military service, or officially declared disasters. H. G. The board may grant an exemption for all or part of the requirements for a licensee who:
1. Is practicing solely in an uncompensated position, provided his practice is under the direction of a physician fully licensed by the board; or
2. Is practicing solely as a medical examiner, provided the licensee obtains six hours of medical examiner training per year provided by the Office of the Chief Medical Examiner.
A. The doctor may provide names of insurance plans accepted or managed care plans in which he participates. B. The doctor may provide additional information on hours of continuing education earned, subspecialties obtained, and honors or awards received.
A. Doctors who utilize office-based anesthesia shall ensure that all medical personnel assisting in providing patient care are appropriately trained, qualified and supervised, are sufficient in numbers to provide adequate care, and maintain training in basic cardiopulmonary resuscitation.
B. All providers of office-based anesthesia shall hold the appropriate license and have the necessary training and skills to deliver the level of anesthesia being provided.
1. Deep sedation, general anesthesia or a major conductive block shall be administered by an anesthesiologist or by a certified registered nurse anesthetist. If a major conductive block is performed for diagnostic or therapeutic purposes, it may be administered by a doctor qualified by training and scope of practice.
2. Moderate sedation/conscious sedation may be administered by the operating doctor with the assistance of and monitoring by a licensed nurse, a physician assistant or a licensed intern or resident.
C. Additional training.
1. On or after December 18, 2003, the doctor who provides office-based anesthesia or who supervises the administration of anesthesia shall maintain current certification in advanced resuscitation techniques.
2. Any doctor who administers office-based anesthesia without the use of an anesthesiologist or certified registered nurse anesthetist shall obtain four hours of continuing education in topics related to anesthesia within the 60 hours required each biennium for licensure renewal, which are subject to random audit by the board.
D. Prior to administration, the anesthesia plan shall be discussed with the patient or responsible party by the health care practitioner administering the anesthesia or supervising the administration of anesthesia. Informed consent for the nature and objectives of the anesthesia planned shall be in writing and obtained from the patient or responsible party before the procedure is performed. Such consent shall include a discussion of discharge planning and what care or assistance the patient is expected to require after discharge. Informed consent shall only be obtained after a discussion of the risks, benefits, and alternatives, contain the name of the anesthesia provider, and be documented in the medical record.
A. Prior to administration, the anesthesia plan shall be discussed with the patient or responsible party by the health care practitioner administering the anesthesia or supervising the administration of anesthesia. Informed consent for the nature and objectives of the anesthesia planned shall be in writing and obtained from the patient or responsible party before the procedure is performed. Such consent shall include a discussion of discharge planning and what care or assistance the patient is expected to require after discharge. Informed consent shall only be obtained after a discussion of the risks, benefits, and alternatives, contain the name of the anesthesia provider, and be documented in the medical record. B. The surgical consent forms shall be executed by the patient or the responsible party and shall contain a statement that the doctor performing the surgery is board certified or board eligible by one of the American Board of Medical Specialties boards, the Bureau of Osteopathic Specialists of the American Osteopathic Association, the American Board of Podiatric Medicine, or the American Board of Foot and Ankle Surgery. The forms shall either list which board or contain a statement that doctor performing the surgery is not board certified or board eligible. C. The surgical consent forms shall indicate whether the surgery is elective or medically necessary. If a consent is obtained in an emergency, the surgical consent form shall indicate the nature of the emergency. A. For the purposes of this chapter, the mixing, diluting, or reconstituting of sterile manufactured drug products when there is no direct contact contamination and administration begins within 10 hours of the completion time of preparation shall be considered immediate-use with the exception of drugs in fat emulsion for which immediate use shall be one hour. If manufacturers' instructions or any other accepted standard specifies or indicates an appropriate time between preparation and administration of less than 10 hours, the mixing, diluting, or reconstituting shall be in accordance with the lesser time. No direct contact contamination means that there is no contamination from touch, gloves, bare skin, or secretions from the mouth or nose. Emergency drugs used in the practice of anesthesiology and administration of allergens may exceed 10 hours after completion of the preparation, provided administration does not exceed the specified expiration date of a multiple use vial and there is compliance with all other requirements of this section. B. Doctors of medicine or osteopathic medicine who engage in immediate-use mixing, diluting, or reconstituting shall: 1. Utilize the practices and principles of disinfection techniques, aseptic manipulations and solution compatibility in immediate-use mixing, diluting, or reconstituting; 2. Ensure that all personnel under their supervision who are involved in immediate-use mixing, diluting, or reconstituting are appropriately and properly trained in and utilize the practices and principles of disinfection techniques, aseptic manipulations, and solution compatibility; 3. Establish and implement procedures for verification of the accuracy of the product that has been mixed, diluted, or reconstituted to include a second check performed by a doctor of medicine or osteopathic medicine or by a physician assistant or a registered nurse who has been specifically trained pursuant to subdivision 2 of this subsection in immediate-use mixing, diluting, or reconstituting. Mixing, diluting, or reconstituting that is performed by a doctor of medicine or osteopathic medicine or by a specifically trained physician assistant or registered nurse or mixing, diluting, or reconstituting of vaccines does not require a second check; 4. Provide a designated, sanitary work space and equipment appropriate for aseptic manipulations; 5. Document or ensure that personnel under his supervision document in the patient record or other readily retrievable record that identifies the patient; the names of drugs mixed, diluted or reconstituted; and the date of administration; and 6. Develop and maintain written policies and procedures to be followed in mixing, diluting, or reconstituting of sterile products and for the training of personnel. C. Any mixing, diluting, or reconstituting of drug products that are hazardous to personnel shall be performed consistent with requirements of all applicable federal and state laws and regulations for safety and air quality, to include but not be limited to those of the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA). For the purposes of this chapter, Appendix A of the National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health publication (NIOSH Publication No. 2004-165), Preventing Occupational Exposure to Antineoplastic and Other Hazardous Drugs in Health Care Settings is incorporated by reference for the list of hazardous drug products and can be found at www.cdc.gov/niosh/docs/2004-165. A. Any mixing, diluting, or reconstituting of sterile products that does not meet the criteria for immediate-use as set forth in 18VAC85-20-400 A shall be defined as low-risk, medium-risk, or high-risk compounding under the definitions of Chapter 797 of the U.S. Pharmacopeia (USP). B. Doctors of medicine or osteopathic medicine who engage in low-risk, medium-risk, or high-risk mixing, diluting, or reconstituting of sterile products shall comply with all applicable requirements of the USP Chapter 797. Subsequent changes to the USP Chapter 797 shall apply within one year of the official announcement by USP. C. A current copy, in any published format, of USP Chapter 797 shall be maintained at the location where low-risk, medium-risk, or high-risk mixing, diluting, or reconstituting of sterile products is performed. A. Doctors of medicine or osteopathic medicine who delegate the mixing, diluting or reconstituting of sterile drug products for administration retain responsibility for patient care and shall monitor and document any adverse responses to the drugs. B. Doctors who engage in the mixing, diluting or reconstituting of sterile drug products in their practices shall disclose this information to the board in a manner prescribed by the board and are subject to unannounced inspections by the board or its agents.